Procedure turn required?

That needs to be made clear in the 7110.65, as there is no such language indicating that we cannot waive a PT as we see fit.

I know. I think the writers of the AIM (and the .65) think that this stuff is much clearer to pilots and controllers than it really is. Rather than writing this stuff themselves, they probably ought to bring into the picture a real technical writer.
 
There is really no one writing who was more clued in about what was happening in the instrument flight world. I owe him a great deal.

Wally was at a seminar for NASCAR pilots a while back at the Joe Gibbs racing facility. Nice fellow, humble but THE authority and able to answer any and all questions.
 
But the substance is that this isn't a carte blanche authority for ATC to waive PTs. They can only do so when one of the conditions exists that makes a PT not required.
Which makes no sense: you can only waive something that isn't required? If it's not required there nothing to waive. Come to think of it, a PT is not permitted if one of those conditions exits (unless ATC authorizes it). So, they can only say "you don't have to do that" if your not allowed to do that?

That the problem with the mis-firing. I agree completely with you that the AIM, despite 3 attempts at clarification, has failed miserably.

Personally, it would be nice if the AIM simply complied with actual practice. If you are in a position where straight i is obvious, they should simply be able to clear you straight in. 3000 msl over the FAF is 3000 msl over the FAF.
 
Personally, it would be nice if the AIM simply complied with actual practice. If you are in a position where straight i is obvious, they should simply be able to clear you straight in. 3000 msl over the FAF is 3000 msl over the FAF.

Agreed, but I think they should define the conditions under which that is acceptable. For instance, within 15 degrees of the final approach course. I use that number because I believe that is the maximum course change permitted at the FAF from the intermediate segment. And the aircraft should be at the FAF crossing altitude, since that would prevent descent gradients from being an issue.
 
Agreed, but I think they should define the conditions under which that is acceptable. For instance, within 15 degrees of the final approach course. I use that number because I believe that is the maximum course change permitted at the FAF from the intermediate segment. And the aircraft should be at the FAF crossing altitude, since that would prevent descent gradients from being an issue.


I could almost make it within 15 degree every time, when direct to the FAF fix, just gotta do a "steep turn" as Im approaching the FAF so Im within 15 degrees as I hit it. :)

Edit: I just did an Approach in Butte MT, and the FAF course change was 30 degrees.
 
Edit: I just did an Approach in Butte MT, and the FAF course change was 30 degrees.

It's 30°:


242. INTERMEDIATE APPROACH SEGMENT BASED ON STRAIGHT COURSES.
a. Alignment. The course to be flown in the intermediate segment shall be the same as the FAC, except when the FAF is the navigation facility and it is not practical for the courses to be identical. In such cases, the intermediate course shall not differ from the FAC by more than 30°.
b. Area.
 
Agreed, but I think they should define the conditions under which that is acceptable. For instance, within 15 degrees of the final approach course. I use that number because I believe that is the maximum course change permitted at the FAF from the intermediate segment. And the aircraft should be at the FAF crossing altitude, since that would prevent descent gradients from being an issue.
I can see a differential based on whether it's initiated by ATC or by the pilot - given the tendency of many pilots to simply follow ATC requests without question, I wouldn't want ATC to give too much of an angle to aircraft. That 30 sounds fairly reasonable for an ATC-initiated straight in since it's the max angle for an intermediate segment and is a typical vector angle (although outside the approach gate). But beyond that, I'm not sure a max is practically needed for a pilot-initiated straight in request.
 
I'm not sure a max is practically needed for a pilot-initiated straight in request.

On the contrary, it's even more needed for pilots, who probably have much less of a clue than controllers about the reason for such constraints on turning angles. Left to pilots, you'd have some who'd come screaming in at 250 knots and attempting a 90 degree (or larger) turn to final.
 
On the contrary, it's even more needed for pilots, who probably have much less of a clue than controllers about the reason for such constraints on turning angles. Left to pilots, you'd have some who'd come screaming in at 250 knots and attempting a 90 degree (or larger) turn to final.

Hehe. There were times back in my fighter days when fuel was skosh in IMC, and a 60 degree or so bank at 300 to join coming off an arc, wasn't unheard of.....esp since I'm depending on a Lead Radial at those speeds, and dependant on winds, it may or may not work out. At that speed, there's no waiting for case break......way too late by then.
 
On the contrary, it's even more needed for pilots, who probably have much less of a clue than controllers about the reason for such constraints on turning angles. Left to pilots, you'd have some who'd come screaming in at 250 knots and attempting a 90 degree (or larger) turn to final.
I have a bit more respect for pilots than that and that they'd figure out when they need to turn around and when the don't.

Perhaps there are examples of IFR accidents that even arguably resulted from a pilot going straight in and making too big a turn at the FAF? maybe someone who did a =legal= PT too close to the FAF and ended up with a 90° turn to final? It sounds to me a bit like a solution for a non-problem.
 
Greetings,
Tgrayson posted a question to me concerning the recent 25 August 2010 change to AIM section 5-4-9, paragraph (a) concerning use of a procedure turn and hold-in-lieu (HIL) of a procedure turn. Reviewing this thread, I noted that there appears to be some confusion regarding the change to AIM 5-4-9a which was amended to include the following statement:

5-4-9. Procedure Turn and Hold-in-lieu of Procedure Turn

a. A procedure turn is the maneuver prescribed when it is necessary to reverse direction to establish the aircraft inbound on an intermediate or final approach course. The procedure turn or hold-in-lieu-of-PT is a required maneuver when it is depicted on the approach chart, unless cleared by ATC for a straight-in approach. Additionally, the procedure turn or hold-in-lieu-of-PT is not permitted when the symbol “No PT” is depicted on the initial segment being used, when a RADAR VECTOR to the final approach course is provided, or when conducting a timed approach from a holding fix. The altitude prescribed for the procedure turn is a minimum altitude until the aircraft is established on the inbound course. The maneuver must be completed within the distance specified in the profile view. For a hold-in-lieu-of-PT, the holding pattern direction must be flown as depicted and the specified leg length/timing must not be exceeded.

This change was initiated as result of discussions that occurred during meeting last October concerning a Document Change Proposal (DCP) to FAA Order 7110.65 affecting section 4-8-1, Approach Clearances. The previous version of the AIM did not include the statement “unless cleared by ATC for a straight-in approach”. Rather, this AIM section referenced an ambiguous statement in a NOTE contained below this opening paragraph. The NOTE stated:

NOTE
The pilot may elect to use the procedure turn or holdinlieuofPT when it is not required by the procedure, but must first receive an amended clearance from ATC. When ATC is radar vectoring to the final approach course or to the intermediate fix, ATC may specify in the approach clearance “CLEARED STRAIGHTIN (type) APPROACH” to ensure the procedure turn or holdinlieuofPT is not to be flown. If the pilot is uncertain whether the ATC clearance intends for a procedure turn to be conducted or to allow for a straightin approach, the pilot shall immediately request clarification from ATC (14 CFR Section 91.123).

The AIM change retained this NOTE.

The published procedure turn or HIL is a required maneuver except as follows:

1. No-PT is depicted on the initial segment.
2. Radar vectors to the final approach course.
3. Time approaches from the holding fix.

There is, however, another option for advanced RNAV aircraft to join the final approach course without completing the procedure turn or the HIL. This option is discussed in AIM 5-4-7(i) and may be applied by the controller in lieu of option #2, radar vectors to the final approach course:

5-4-7. Instrument Approach Procedures

i. ATC may clear aircraft that have filed an Advanced RNAV equipment suffix to the intermediate fix when clearing aircraft for an instrument approach procedure. ATC will take the following actions when clearing Advanced RNAV aircraft to the intermediate fix:
1. Provide radar monitoring to the intermediate fix.
2. Advise the pilot to expect clearance direct to the intermediate fix at least 5 miles from the fix.
NOTE-
This is to allow the pilot to program the RNAV equipment to allow the aircraft to fly to the intermediate fix when cleared by ATC.
3. Assign an altitude to maintain until the intermediate fix.
4. Insure the aircraft is on a course that will intercept the intermediate segment at an angle not greater than 90 degrees and is at an altitude that will permit normal descent from the intermediate fix to the final approach fix.

The controller’s ability to issue such a clearance comes from FAAO 7110.65, paragraph 4-8-1a:

4-8-1. APPROACH CLEARANCE
a. Clear aircraft for “standard” or “special” instrument approach procedures only. To require an aircraft to execute a particular instrument approach procedure, specify in the approach clearance the name of the approach as published on the approach chart. Where more than one procedure is published on a single chart and a specific procedure is to be flown, amend the approach clearance to specify execution of the specific approach to be flown. If only one instrument approach of a particular type is published, the approach needs not be identified by the runway reference. An aircraft conducting an ILS/MLS approach when the glideslope/glidepath is reported out of service shall be advised at the time an approach clearance is issued. Standard Instrument Approach Procedures shall commence at an Initial Approach Fix or an Intermediate Approach Fix if there is not an Initial Approach Fix. Area Navigation (RNAV) Standard Instrument Approach Procedures may begin at an Intermediate Approach Fix for aircraft that have filed an Advanced RNAV equipment suffix when the conditions of subpara b4 are met. Where adequate radar coverage exists, radar facilities may vector aircraft to the final approach course in accordance with para 5-9-1, Vectors to Final Approach Course.

The conditions listed under subparagraph b4 are as follows:

b. For aircraft operating on unpublished routes, issue the approach clearance only after the aircraft is: (See FIG 4-8-1.)
4. Established on a heading or course that will intercept the intermediate segment at the intermediate fix, when an initial approach fix is published, provided the following conditions are met:
(a) The instrument approach procedure is a GPS or RNAV approach.
(b) Radar monitoring is provided to the Intermediate Fix.
(c) The aircraft has filed an Advanced RNAV equipment suffix.
(d) The pilot is advised to expect clearance direct to the Intermediate Fix at least 5 miles from the fix.
(e) The aircraft is assigned an altitude to maintain until the Intermediate Fix.
(f)The aircraft is on a course that will intercept the intermediate segment at an angle not greater than 90 degrees and is at an altitude that will permit normal descent from the Intermediate Fix to the Final Approach Fix.
NOTE-
Controllers should expect aircraft to descend at approximately 300 feet per NM when applying guidance in subpara 4(f) above.

For an aircraft to be cleared for an approach at a point other than the IAF (or IF is there is not IAF), the aircraft must be filed as an advanced RNAV aircraft and the procedure involved must be an RNAV IAP. Two of the cases in NASA’s Call Back involved conventional, non-RNAV IAPs. Therefore, the direct-to approach clearances that were issued to a fix other than the IAF were improper on the part of the controller. In the third case, the crew erred by not flying the HIL. In this third case, ATC’s expectations were correct and the crew should have flown the HIL.

The 25 August change to the AIM was intended to eliminate confusion concerning whether a pilot should execute a HIL published at the IF/IAF on an RNAV IAP when the conditions provided for in 7110.65, subparagraph 4-8-1b4 and AIM 5-4-7(i) are met. While not specifically required by the 7110.65’s current guidance, the controller is advised in the 7110.65 to use the following phraseology:

PHRASEOLOGY-
CLEARED (type) APPROACH.

(For a straight-in-approach- IFR),

CLEARED STRAIGHT-IN (type) APPROACH.

There are no provisions in the 7110.65, paragraph 4-8-1a for clearing an aircraft direct-to the FAF or direct-to any fix inside the IF and then issuing an approach clearance. When clearing an aircraft for an approach inside in the IAF (or the IF if an IAF is not published), the last sentence of 4-8-1a becomes the operative guidance:
“Where adequate radar coverage exists, radar facilities may vector aircraft to the final approach course in accordance with para 5-9-1, Vectors to Final Approach Course.”

ATC can provide radar vectors to the final approach course where radar coverage exists, but they must comply with the provisions of 7110.65, section 5-9-1 and 5-9-2:

5-9-1. VECTORS TO FINAL APPROACH COURSE

Except as provided in para 7-4-2, Vectors for Visual Approach, vector arriving aircraft to intercept the final approach course:
a. At least 2 miles outside the approach gate unless one of the following exists:
1. When the reported ceiling is at least 500 feet above the MVA/MIA and the visibility is at least 3 miles (report may be a PIREP if no weather is reported for the airport), aircraft may be vectored to intercept the final approach course closer than 2 miles outside the approach gate but no closer than the approach gate.
2. If specifically requested by the pilot, aircraft may be vectored to intercept the final approach course inside the approach gate but no closer than the final approach fix.
EXCEPTION. Conditions 1 and 2 above do not apply to RNAV aircraft being vectored for a GPS or RNAV approach.
b. For a precision approach, at an altitude not above the glideslope/glidepath or below the minimum glideslope intercept altitude specified on the approach procedure chart.
c. For a nonprecision approach, at an altitude which will allow descent in accordance with the published procedure

5-9-2. FINAL APPROACH COURSE INTERCEPTION

a. Assign headings that will permit final approach course interception on a track that does not exceed the interception angles specified in TBL 5-9-1.

TBL 5-9-1

Approach Course Interception Angle




Distance from interception point to approach gate


Maximum interception angle

Less than 2 miles or triple simultaneous ILS/MLS approaches in use: 20 degrees

2 miles or more: 30 degrees (45 degrees for helicopters)

b. If deviations from the final approach course are observed after initial course interception, apply the following:
1. Outside the approach gate: apply procedures in accordance with subpara a, if necessary, vector the aircraft for another approach.
2. Inside the approach gate: inform the pilot of the aircraft's position and ask intentions.

PHRASEOLOGY-
(Ident) (distance) MILE(S) FROM THE AIRPORT, (distance) MILE(S) RIGHT/LEFT OF COURSE, SAY INTENTIONS.
NOTE-
The intent is to provide for a track course intercept angle judged by the controller to be no greater than specified by this procedure.

It continues to disturb me to hear reports of aircraft being issued approach clearances involving a direct-to the FAF. These approach clearances are not supported by the instructions contained the 7110.65 in sections 4-8-1, 5-9-1, and 5-9-1 and are a significant source for the confusion that exists today regarding whether or not a procedure turn or HIL is to be used on an approach. We know that direct-to FAF clearances do occur in VMC conditions, but normally they are issued leading to a visual approach clearance. However, these direct-to FAF approaches clearances should never be issued in IMC conditions in lieu of vectors to the final approach course, vectors which comply with 7110.65 sections 5-9-1 and 5-9-2.

ATC can vector an aircraft on to the extended final approach course or on to the radial for the final approach course and a subsequently clear the aircraft for the approach. However, there are two key elements that are necessary and must be met before ATC can issue such an approach clearance, which are found in subparagraph 5-9-1 b & c. The MVA and MIA may not always support the controller ability to descend an aircraft to an altitude where the provisions of paragraph 5-9-1 b & C can be met. In these cases, a procedure turn or HIL will be necessary to ensure that maximum descent gradient for the intermediate segment afforded by the TERPS criteria between the IF and the FAF is not exceeded. These descent gradient limitations are intended to supply the aircraft with a sufficiently flat surface to slow and configure the aircraft for the final approach. Failure to adhere to these limitations greatly increases the opportunity for un-stabilized approaches and landing overrun incidents.

There were several comments made concerning the Portland-Hillsboro (HIO) VOR/DME C approach regarding the option to proceed straight in on the approach after passing HIO VORTAC from the south. There are two airways that approach from the south, V287 on the HIO R-183 and V495 on the HIO R-174. It is quite possible that the MEA for V287 (3600’) and V459 (4000’ – MOCA 3400’) will not allow a descent to intermediate segment step-down altitude of 2700 ft within the maximum descent gradient limits provided for by TERPS. Therefore, even though the alignment is correct for continuing straight in, the altitude requirements for crossing HIO maybe too high to permit a No-PT Feeder segment along these two airways.

That fact that feeder segments are not provided along the airways that approach HIO VOR from the south should be a clear indication to a pilot that you will likely not be at an altitude that will allow a safe descent from the HIO (the IF) to the FAF if you fail to execute the procedure turn. The same holds true at relatively flatland airports when proceeding to a fix that serves both as the IAF and the FAF if the MVA and MIA overhead the fix are sufficiently high above the IAF minimum altitude published in the profile view. Proceeding straight in could lead a nasty surprise from the IF inbound to the FAF if you are unable to slow the aircraft for the final approach while descending to the FAF crossing altitude or the glideslope intercept altitude.
If the MVA allows, Portland approach might be able to vector the aircraft on to the final approach course or the HIO R-166. If so, then ATC may clear the aircraft for the approach when on a published segment using the provisions of 5-9-1 and 5-9-2.

Yes, it is correct that TERPS allows a 30-degree course change at the FAF. However, when such course change occurs at the FAF, the area on the outside of the turn is expanded to join the final approach segment protected airspace with the intermediate segment protected airspace. An “ad-hoc” 30-degree turn over the FAF to join the final approach course inbound does not afford such protection when the inbound track of the intermediate segment and the final approach segment are the same. Since obstacle clearance at the FAF could be as little of 500’ vertically and the lateral protected airspace is at the final approach segment limit, it may not take much of an overshoot in adverse winds to create the potential for contact with an obstacle.

It is for the reasons listed in the above paragraph that the changes being discussed regarding 7110.65’s section 4-8-1, will not include an option to clear an aircraft for an approach with a direct-to clearance to the FAF. If controllers are in habit of issuing an IFR approach clearance direct-to the FAF with the expectation of the aircraft proceeding straight in on the instrument approach, I would respectfully suggest that they review the guidance currently provided to them in the 7110.65, 4-8-1.

As noted above, there is an on-going effort to address the issue of direct-to approach clearances with a view to amending 7110.65, section 4-8-1 to allow their use on approaches other than an RNAV approach and to fixes inside the IF. There are, however, technical issues involved that make such clearance problematic. These issues include:

1. Transfer from RNAV navigation to conventional navigation: How will an aircraft equipment and pilots transfer from RNAV to ILS guidance when cleared for an approach involving a direct-to clearance to a fix inside the IF? Many RNAV aircraft do not have automatic “Nav-to-Nav” transfer. Will RNAV turn anticipation approaching the direct-to fix result in the aircraft turning outside of the reduced intermediate segment lateral protected area especially if a VNAV descent is commenced at the turn bi-sector? Will the transfer of navigation sources result in capturing the glideslope from above after passing the direct-to fix, which is contrary to subparagraph 5-9-1b?

2. Some aircraft RNAV systems do not code fixes between the IF and the FAF. How will ATC handle such situations? How will pilots? Will pilots receiving such a clearance but without these fixes coded in the nav-database be tempted to insert the direct-to fix into the LEGS/FLIGHT PLAN? How will such ad-hoc additions affect a TSO C129 GPS approach receiver’s approach mode ramp-down capability?

And, then there is the whole question of direct-to approach clearances to fixes on RNAV (RNP) SAAAR approaches (or RNAV (RNP) AR as they are now known)…

I hope that this will help answer some of the questions posed in this discussion.
Best regards,
Rich Boll
 
Rich Boll is NBAA's representative to the FAA's Aeronautical Charting Forum, Instrument Procedures Group. This group writes much of the AIM guidance with respect to instrument procedures. If you want to know what the AIM is trying to say on this subject, the people in this group are probably the foremost authorities.
 
Seems to me to be a lot of explanation for a simple sentence. Much of it goes into a discussion about when ATC is permitted to clear straignt in (and why).

But the simple bottom line appears to be that if ATC clears me for a straight-in approach I can approach straight in and do not need to do the PT, just as FAA Legal suggested in a 1977 opinion.
 
But the simple bottom line appears to be that if ATC clears me for a straight-in approach I can approach straight in and do not need to do the PT

I agree that the AIM is now permissive in that regard, because it assumes that ATC will only make such a clearance when the PT is not required. It doesn't take into account that ATC may mistaken about when a PT is required or that it might offer a straight-in clearance upon pilot request.
 
I agree that the AIM is now permissive in that regard, because it assumes that ATC will only make such a clearance when the PT is not required. It doesn't take into account that ATC may mistaken about when a PT is required or that it might offer a straight-in clearance upon pilot request.

In that situation, who's at fault? ATC for being mistaken about not knowing when a PT is required, or the pilot for requesting something he should know he may not be legal to do?
 
In that situation, who's at fault? ATC for being mistaken about not knowing when a PT is required, or the pilot for requesting something he should know he may not be legal to do?

Reminds me a bit of that enforcement action against the pilot who didn't file an alternate on a popup IFR clearance. He argued that since ATC didn't ask him for an alternate, they had waived the requirement. The FAA's winning argument was that ATC didn't have any knowledge of whether or not an alternate was required, hence their lack of asking wasn't implicit permission to avoid the requirement.

However, in this case, ATC would be granting something it had no right to give, so I would think they would share some culpability with the pilot.
 
In that situation, who's at fault? ATC for being mistaken about not knowing when a PT is required, or the pilot for requesting something he should know he may not be legal to do?
What others do is their business and this is not advice. I'm personally comfortable with the idea that if I ask for a straight-in and ATC clears me straight-in, the current AIM guidance says it =is= legal.

Part of that comfort involves a couple of realities:
  • ATC generally expects you to go straight in when within a reasonable altitude of FAF crossing altitude and with a "reasonable" turn to the final approach course. There's more than enough anecdotal evidence of that; I may have mentioned in some other thread that I almost "failed" an IPC when I gave the "you have to do the PT" to a CFII who was also a retired cotroller.
  • The only practical difference between this and being vectored is that vectors lead you to intercept outside the FAF while this brings you directly to it.
  • It's only in the case of an incident or a separation problem involving you being in the wrong place at the wrong time where anyone would even look at you and both are very remote.
 
Reminds me a bit of that enforcement action against the pilot who didn't file an alternate on a popup IFR clearance. He argued that since ATC didn't ask him for an alternate, they had waived the requirement. The FAA's winning argument was that ATC didn't have any knowledge of whether or not an alternate was required, hence their lack of asking wasn't implicit permission to avoid the requirement.
You got a reference for that one? I'd like to read it. I've never been asked for an alternate (and a lot of otherwise "required" flight plan information) on a pop-up clearance and have never given what I wasn't asked for.
 
You got a reference for that one? I'd like to read it. I've never been asked for an alternate (and a lot of otherwise "required" flight plan information) on a pop-up clearance and have never given what I wasn't asked for.

I'll post it later; I'm surprised you haven't run into it. It's a well-known case that some have used to suggest that pop-clearances are illegal. (The original judge asserted that.)
 
I'll post it later;

[I did not type the following.]



What follows is a copy of the decision of the NTSB in a case involving the propriety of a pilot not having formally listed an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan when he was advised by Ground Control, prior to departure, that his primary destination was closed and he thereupon requested a clearance to his originally filed alternate. It has some significance in the context of pop-up IFR clearances, and the SoCal Golf routes. Typographical errors are probably mine, and the paragraph structure is loosely based on the original decision. The text itself should be verbatim.
----------------------------------------------------------------

Administrator
v.
BRIAN P. GATELY, RESPONDENT
Docket No. SE-5050
Adopted October 16, 1981
3 N.T.S.B. 3968

OPINION AND ORDER

Respondent has filed a pro se appeal from the oral initial decision Administrative Law Judge Thomas W. Reilly issued in this proceeding on June 9, 1981, following evidentiary hearings conducted on that date and on April 2, 1981.* The initial decision affirms an order of the Administrator suspending respondent's pilot certificate, but reduces the suspension period from 90 to 30 days. ** The law judge concluded that the respondent had, as alleged in the suspension order, violated sections 91.38(a)(9) and 91.5(a) of the Federal Aviation Regulations (14 CFR Part 91, FAR) in connection with an instrument flight rules (IFR) flight he made on June 8, 1980. *** The law judge dismissed an allegation that respondent had failed to maintain a continuous radio watch in violation of section 91.125. On appeal respondent contends that the law judge's finding that he violated section 91.83(a)(9) by failing to list an alternate airport in his flight plan is erroneous.

The basis for respondent's contention is his belief that he had been authorized by air traffic control (ATC) to operate pursuant to an abbreviated flight plan and, therefore, he was not required to list an alternate. A brief review of the facts is necessary in order to assess respondent's claim. The record shows that respondent, by telephone, filed an IFR flight plan for a trip from Danbury to Bridgeport, Connecticut. He listed Waterbury-Oxford Airport as an alternate.

Prior to his takeoff, however, respondent, while awaiting his IFR clearance, was advised by Ground Control at Danbury that the airport at Bridgeport was closed due to an air show. When asked his intention in light of this development, respondent advised that he would like to go direct to Waterbury-Oxford. Ground Control processed this request and shortly thereafter issued respondent an IFR clearance to the new destination. Respondent's failure, during or after this exchange, to specify a new alternate airport forms the basis for the section 91.83(a)(9) charge the law judge affirmed.****

Respondent maintains that he had a new alternate in mind when the change in destination was filed, but that he did not give it to ATC because that information was not requested. ***** He asserts in effect that ATC's failure to request that information amounted to an authorization to operate pursuant to an abbreviated flight plan. ****** We find ourselves unable to accept respondent's view of the matter. Although we do not believe that an abbreviated flight plan must be expressly authorized if the facts demonstrate an implied or constructive authorization, we do not think the facts of this case warrant the conclusion that such an authorization was present here. Alternate airport information is only required to be filed when destination weather does not meet the conditions specified in section 91.83(b). Thus, the fact that ATC issues a clearance on a flight plan that does not list an alternate cannot automatically be viewed as an authorization not to file one, for the omission may simply reflect the pilot's judgment that the listing of an alternate was unnecessary given the weather forecasts for his destination.

While we do not accept respondent's contention that he had been authorized not to file an alternate, his violation may be to some degree understandable in light of the unexpected circumstance that forced him to alter his travel plans at the last minute. In view of this factor, and the law judge's dismissal of one of the violation allegations, there appears to be sufficient justification for the reduction in sanction the law judge ordered. The respondent has not challenged the term of suspension the law judge found warranted, and we perceive no basis for disturbing his judgment on the issue. ******* His findings are hereby adopted to the extent they are consistent with this opinion and order.

ACCORDINGLY, IT IS ORDERED THAT:

1. Respondent's appeal is denied;

2. The order of suspension, as modified by the initial decision, is affirmed; and

3. The 30-day suspension of respondent's pilot certificate shall commence within 30 days after service of this order. [FN8]

KING, Chairman, DRIVER, Vice Chairman, McADAMS, GOLDMAN and BURSLEY, Members of the Board, concurred in the above opinion and order.

* An excerpt from the hearing transcript containing the initial decision is attached.

** The Administrator has not filed an appeal, but has filed a reply opposing respondent's appeal.

*** Sections 91.83(a)(9) and 91.5(a) provide as follows:
Section 91.83 Flight plan; information required.
(a) Information required. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, each person filing an IFR or VFR flight plan shall include in it the following information:
[* * *]
(9) In the case of an IFR flight plan, an alternate airport except as provided in paragraph (b) of this section."
[* * *]
Section 91.5 Preflight action.
Each pilot in command shall, before beginning a flight, familiarize himself with all available information concerning that flight. This information must include:
(a) For a flight under IFR or a flight not in the vicinity of an airport, weather reports and forecasts, fuel requirements, alternatives available if the planned flight cannot be completed, and any known traffic delays of which he has been advised by ATC."


**** The law judge viewed this charge as overlapping the section 91.5(a) charge.

***** The airport respondent contends was to be his new alternate was Stewart Field, Newburgh, New York. We note that when respondent executed a missed approach at Waterbury-Oxford he requested a clearance to Newburgh. The record also demonstrates that Stewart was a legal alternate and that respondent had the necessary fuel reserves.

****** The Airman Information Manual Glossary states that an abbreviated IFR flight plan is an "authorization by ATC requiring pilots to submit only that information needed for the purpose of ATC. It includes only a small portion of the usual IFR flight plan information. In certain instances, this may be only aircraft identification, location, and pilot request. Other information may be requested if needed by ATC for separation/control purposes. It is frequently used by aircraft which are airborne, desire an instrument approach, or by aircraft on the ground which desire a climb to VFR on top."

******* The law judge concluded that the decision on sanction here should be guided by precedent involving various preflight planning - related violations which have typically resulted in suspensions of from 30 to 60 days.

******** For purposes of this order, respondent must physically surrender his certificate to an appropriate representative of the Federal Aviation Administration pursuant to section 61.19(f), FAR.

INITIAL DECISION OF JUDGE THOMAS W. REILLY

This has been an evidentiary proceeding under Section 609 of The Federal Aviation Act of 1958 as amended, 49 U.S.C. 1429, conducted pursuant to the Board's rules of Practice in Air Safety Proceedings, 49 CFR Part 821. The Administrator was represented by Counsel by the respondent appeared pro se. The hearing today (this was the second session) was the result of an appeal of the Administrator's Order of Suspension, issued through his New England Regional Counsel on December 24, 1980, which Order of Suspension became the complaint in this proceeding pursuant to the Board's Rules of Practice. The Order of Suspension sought to suspend the respondent's Airman Certificate, including this Commercial Pilots Certificate, for a period of 90 days because of the facts alleged in the complaint. As in all proceedings under Section 609 of the Act, the Administrator has the burden of proof.

Briefly paraphrasing the complaint, it alleged that on June 8, 1980, Respondent was pilot-in-command of a Cessna 177, otherwise known as Cardinal N2906X on a passenger carrying flight from Danbury Airport to an intended destination of Waterbury-Oxford Airport. It was alleged that at no time prior to commencing the flight from Waterbury- Oxford Airport did he file any airport as a flight plan alternate nor did he familiarize himself with available alternate airports.

The complaint further alleges that after executing a missed approach at Waterbury-Oxford Airport, that the Respondent proceeded to the vicinity of the Igor Sikorsky Memorial Airport at Bridgeport, Connecticut, where he operated the aircraft in controlled airspace for approximately 14 minutes without monitoring the controlling frequency. By virtue of those facts the Administrator charged violations of three F.A.R.'s: Federal Avaition Regulations, Section 91.83A9, for filing an I.F.R. flight plan without listing an alternate.
91.5A, for Commencing an I.F.R. flight without familiarizing himself with alternate airports available, and Section 91.125, for operating an aircraft as the pilot-in-command under I.F.R. in controlled airspace when the Respondent did not maintain a continuous watch on the appropriate frequency. I will not attempt to parapharse the testimony but I will recite who the witnesses were at least.

First witness for the F.A.A. (that was at the April 2nd session) was Inspector Robert F. Sullivan of the F.A.A./G.A.D.O. That is General Aviation District Office in Westfield. He's a Principal Operations Safety Inspector. He investigated Mr. Gately's flight on the day in question and the aircraft in question.
Mr. Leo Spencer, the second witness for the F.A.A., is the Team Supervisor and Flight Data Position in the Danbury F.A.A. Tower.

Third witness for the F.A.A. was Bertrom G. Marien, and he works in the control tower at the Sikorsky Airport, Bridgeport or Stratford, Connecticut. He was a Supervisor in charge of the Tower Cab operation that day. About all that he testified to, it appears, is the fact that the Bridgeport Airport was closed that day due to an airshow, but respondent on the radio kept asking if the airport would open and if he could land there.

The last witness for the Administrator was William L. Haran, The Chief Air Traffic Controller at Bridgeport Sikorsky Airport. The Respondent testified on is own behalf today. He also had his wife to testify to corrorborate his testimony. But when we discussed what she would testify to, we determined that it would be unnecessary for her to testify since she would only repeat or corroroborate what the Respondent had already testified to.

It turns out that from the testimony that the flight on that day, the Cessna Cardinal had four people on board, three of whom were pilots. The Respondent was the pilot-in-command. His wife was on board and she is a pilot. One of the other two passengers was also a pilot. It is pretty clear from the evidence and I am convinced, I think the Respondent fairly well admits that at no time prior to commencing the flight to Waterbury-Oxford did he file any airport as a flight plan alternate. Although he testified that he did check the weather and did familiarize himself with several different airports as being available alternate airports.

I also find that with regard to Paragraph No. 4 in the complaint, which specifically alleges that there were 14 minutes that the Respondent did not monitor the controlling frequency, the evidence establishes pretty clearly to my satisfaction that there was no 14 minute period involved. There were three separate periods: one approximately two minutes long; another approximately three-and-a-half minutes long; and one, something less than five minutes.

It is also clear from the transcript that every time the Respondent left the frequency before he did so he requested permission to do so, and in fact he was delayed in leaving the frequency at the request of Air Traffic Control on at least one or two occasions. And he did stay on the frequency until he was granted permission to leave the frequency.

So I find under those circumstances that Paragraph No. 4 of the complaint has not been proven and therefore F.A.R. Section 91.125, I find has not been proven to have been violated by the Respondent.

However, I find that the other two sections are rather-they're really only two numbered paragraphs in the complaint that allege violations. Paragraphs No. 1 and 2 set forth facts that are really not in dispute. But the two paragraphs alleging violations, three and four are the only ones, as I say, alleging violations. I find that four was not proven, therefore only three is left. And I find that paragraph three was proven. So I find that Respondent did violate F.A.R. Section 91.83(a)(9), failing to file an I.F.R. flight plan with an alternate.

The other F.A.R. Section I think is pretty much overlapping that first section, failing to familiarize yourself with alternate airport information. This is tied in with failing to file an alternate in the first place.

With regard to sanction I had the time between the two sessions of the hearing to do a little research on sanctions that have been approved by the Board, affirmed by the Board, over the years in similar cases, although the pre-flight action charge covers a whole gamut of pre-flight failures. And I find that the sanctions are somewhat lower than what the F.A.A. is looking for in this particular case. For example, in more serious cases, quite obviously I think are the fuel exhaustion cases where you have an on-instrumented rated pilot flying into unexpected I.F.R. conditions and having to be saved by Air Traffic Control and he finally lands safely. I think that is a more blatant violation than what we have here. Most cases have yielded a 30 to 60 day suspension of private pilot certificates. Some few have yielded 90-day suspensions. In the case of Schoonoven 2NTSB page 2174, Board Oder EA-862, we had a V.F.R.- only pilot entering a control zone, and in instrument weather conditions, and contrary to A.T.C.'s refusal of a clearance and instruction to her to remain clear of the control zone. In that case she received a 120-day suspension. That is a 1976 case. So looking at some 20 or 30 cases in the Board's reports, it appears to me that the appropriate sanction in this case would be 30 days instead of 90 days and that's what I order in this particular case.

I do want to make one little comment here for the benefit of the Respondent. I sincerely hope that the Respondent doesn't really believe that the proper, accepted or appropriate way for filing a flight plan is just mentioning a new alternate, a new destination rather, with ground control or with A.T.C. in the air. There are certain ways of doing it and if a pilot really believes that that's the way to file an I.F.R. flight plan then there is some serious question of his instrument competency. Under more blatant circumstances, an instrument competency recheck would be in order. I don't think that's the case here. I think Respondent merely took a strategic legal position for this case only. And the only accepted way of filing a flight plan is through the flight service station, and if you're in the air you have to request specifically the relay of that flight plan to the flight service station, and from the flight service station back through A.T.C. for an A.T.C. clearance or amended clearance.

An I.F.R. flight plan above all flight plans is a very formal document with a lot of requirements, and it is not just done by happening to mention to the ground control frequency, or some controller handling traffic in the air, that you have decided on a new destination, at least this does not fulfill the alternate requirement. But that is no way to conduct I.F.R. operations. It is a violation of the regulations. I don't care how many people get away with it.

After due consideration of all the evidence I find that the Administrator had met his burden of proof and has proven by a clear preponderence of the reliable and credible evidence that his Order of Suspension should be affirmed, but only as reduced to a 30-day suspension of the Respondent's Airman Certificate. And so the Administrator's Order of Suspension is modified to that extent.

I find that safety in air commerce or air transportation and the public interest require affirmation of the Administrator's Order as modified and reduced to a 30-day suspension. The suspension period will begin twelve days after today's date, which would make it the 21st of June, unless the case is further appealed, and I will now read the appeal provisions. 
 
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