I posted the link mainly to provide you with Denker input regarding this book. In his post, he expresses disdain for two of Andersen and Eberhardt's ideas:
1) Coanda effect
2) Downwash
He's pretty much the only knowledgeable person who addresses #1, because he's probably the only one that knows there's anyone that is claiming that flight requires this phenomenon.
Aha! I see. Okay, so the coanda effect is not the cause of the airflow following the wing. Speaking as a total non-expert

, that's cool I don't care about coanda- I'm interested in attempting to bebunk the idea of downwash being responsible for lift.
... Problem is, with no viscosity, no lift occurs.

Still, it removes one of justifications for bring the Coanda effect into the picture, since it isn't necessary to explain why air follows the contour of the wing.
Couple of things here. First, what causes an acceleration? According to Newton, F = ma, so a = F/m. In other words, an acceleration requires a force. If the air is being accelerated, there is already a force acting on the air. But how can a force already exist prior to the air moving when we're trying to explain the existence of that force by the moving air?
To be honest, you lost me there. Understanding that statement requires me to have an IQ higher than 141 (or to actually have some physics expertise)!
I just had an "aha".
Watch this clip of an A340 (yuck) landing at St. Maarten.
http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Rjaq2pA9BsU&feature=related
If downwash was the cause of lift this clip would show a wake in the water and the people would be thrown to the ground.
Since neither of those things happen, the downwash theory is easily and entirely debunked!!! So there.
You know, I just read the last chapter in "Understanding Flight", which is all about windtunnels... they talk a lot about the calculations that have to be done to correct for errors caused by wing and also stab downwash being interupted by the wall of the wind tunnel. I'm going to speculate that these guys worked and thought about those downwash errors so much that it led them to think that downwash did more than it does.
As you stated, they then made up a hypothesis that they failed to confirm with testing and published a book. Go figure.
Second, downwash is created by wingtip vortices; no vortices, no downwash. When a wing is placed in a wind tunnel, often the ends are allowed to touch the sides of the wind tunnel, which prevents the formation of wingtip vortices and thus eliminates downwash. Yet these wings still generate lift. How could that be?
As a person with absolutely zero college level physics or aerodynamics expertise, do you mind if I ask you a question that happens to involve disagreeing with you? Great!
Okay, based partially upon the misinformatioon I learned from this bogus book, but moreso based logically (at least to me) on the evidence of downwash and vortices shown in this picture
http://www.airliners.net/photo/British-Airways/Boeing-777-236-ER/1091105/M/
... Saying that wingtip vortices create downwash & "no vortices, no downwash"
seems, to me, like putting the cart before the horse.
Here's why that confuses me (bear with me if you can): We know that the vortices exist because the high pressure air below the wing combines with the low pressure air at the wingtip...
Because we know that winglets reduce the vortice strength, reducing drag- it seems logical TO A NOVICE

that if you were to take a 777 (which doesn't even need winglets because of the efficiency of the wing [it has swept/raked tips]) and increase the wingspan from 200' to 300' and add 30 foot long winglets... there could be possibly no vortices from the wingtips - and the wing would still make lift because of the bernoulli low pressure over the wing. Right? Or am I crazy?
A high performance glider with an extreme aspect ratio can't be producing much of a wingtip vortice at all, yet there is lots a lift because lift is not dictated by how much high pressure spills over the wingtip (due to the lack of a winglet or sufficient span), but by the wing area/chord/AOA. Right?
The picture I linked to above, to the untrained observer, seems to show downwash (though not the cause of lift) eventually turning into a (non wingtip?) vortice... like perhaps there is the presence of wingtip vortices and also the higher velocity downwash at the inboard portions of the wing curling around the lower velocity downwash departing from the outboard portions of the wing. I deduce/hypothesis (invent? imagine?) all of that from that picture and from something mentioned in this bogus book.
Does any of that make any sense?
The "infinite" wind tunnel wing with no wingtips or vortices makes lift because of the bernoulli low pressure, which doesn't care about vortices because they are a result, not a cause of lift. Right?
Thanks for you patience and for taking the time to answer!
I don't know calculus- so this is as far as I can go with this subject- that is, specifically, to annoy you with nonsensical questions!
1. The best criticism of Andersen and Eberhardt is that the Coanda effect is unnecessary to explain why the air hugs the surface of the airfoil of a conventional airfoil. It does so when the air contains no viscosity and thus the Coanda effect impossible.
2. The irrelevance of downwash is illustrated by the fact that wings in a wind tunnel have no downwash, yet generate lift.
1. & 2: Understood.
2. Also proven by the youtube clip
I think I wont annoy you anymore about this stuff.
